I have two questions. I understand that if I specify the domain as .mydomain.com
(with the leading dot) in the cookie that all subdomains can share a cookie.
Can subdomain.mydomain.com
access a cookie created in mydomain.com
(without the www
subdomain)?
Can mydomain.com
(without the www
subdomain) access the cookie if created in subdomain.mydomain.com
?
The 2 domains mydomain.com
and subdomain.mydomain.com
can only share cookies if the domain is explicitly named in the Set-Cookie
header. Otherwise, the scope of the cookie is restricted to the request host. (This is referred to as a "host-only cookie". See What is a host only cookie?)
For instance, if you sent the following header from subdomain.mydomain.com
, then the cookie won't be sent for requests to mydomain.com
:
Set-Cookie: name=value
However if you use the following, it will be usable on both domains:
Set-Cookie: name=value; domain=mydomain.com
This cookie will be sent for any subdomain of mydomain.com, including nested subdomains like subsub.subdomain.mydomain.com
.
In RFC 2109, a domain without a leading dot meant that it could not be used on subdomains, and only a leading dot (.mydomain.com
) would allow it to be used across multiple subdomains (but not the top-level domain, so what you ask was not possible in the older spec).
However, all modern browsers respect the newer specification RFC 6265, and will ignore any leading dot, meaning you can use the cookie on subdomains as well as the top-level domain.
In summary, if you set a cookie like the second example above from mydomain.com
, it would be accessible by subdomain.mydomain.com
, and vice versa. This can also be used to allow sub1.mydomain.com
and sub2.mydomain.com
to share cookies.
See also: