Why might one use the xzr register instead of the literal 0 on ARMv8?

OMGtechy picture OMGtechy · Mar 14, 2017 · Viewed 11.5k times · Source

I was reading the SVE whitepaper from ARM and came across something that struck me as odd (in a non-SVE example):

mov x8, xzr

I didn't know what this xzr register was, so I looked it up and found some content from ARM stating that it was, in many contexts, synonymous with zero.

So it looks like x8 is being initialised to zero, which makes sense because it's executed just before a loop where x8 is used as the loop counter.

What I don't understand is, why wasn't the literal 0 used instead of xzr? For example:

mov x8, 0

To summarise, my question is: why might one use the xzr register instead of the literal 0 here?

Answer

Jeremy picture Jeremy · Mar 14, 2017

I think the mov x8, xzr vs mov x8, #0 comparison is something of a red herring.

As @old_timer's answer shows, there is no encoding gain to be made, and quite likely (although admittedly I haven't checked) little or no pipeline performance gain.

What xzr gives us, however - in addition to a dummy register as per @InfinitelyManic's answer - is access to a zero-valued operand without having to load and occupy a real register. This has the dual benefit of one less instruction, and one more register available to hold 'real' data.

I think this is an important characteristic that the original 'some content from ARM' referred to in the OP neglects to point out.

That's what I mean by mov x8, xzr vs mov x8, #0 being a red herring. If we're zeroing x8 with the intention of then modifying it, then using xzr or #0 is pretty arbitrary (although I'd tend to favour #0 as the more obvious). But if we're zeroing x8 purely in order to supply a zero operand to a subsequent instruction, then we'd be better off using - where permitted - xzr instead of x8 as the operand in that instruction, and not zeroing x8 at all.